2020/Apr New Braindump2go 300-625 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 300-625 Exam Questions.

QUESTION 18
A storage administrator wants to enable NPV in a Fibre Channel edge switch. Which configuration is supported in this mode?

A. Cisco Fabric Services distribution over Fibre Channel
B. E Port connectivity to the core switch
C. local switching of east-west traffic
D. Dynamic Port VSAN Membership

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which configuration is always required when running the setup utility on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch?

A. administrator password
B. management IP address
C. active NTP server
D. active default gateway

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
A network engineer is configuring a Cisco MDS switch for FCoE. Which two conditions must be considered during the implementation phase? (Choose two.)

A. On Cisco MDS switches, system-defined class maps for class-FCoE and class-default are enabled but can be deleted.
B. The QoS policy must be identical to other Cisco FCoE switches in the network.
C. On the Cisco MDS, the MTU is set equal to 2112.
D. VLAN 1 or the native VLAN can be mapped to an FCoE VSAN.
E. FCoE is already enabled on a Cisco MDS switch.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 21
Which port mode is used on an NPV device to connect to an NPIV core switch?

A. E
B. F
C. N
D. NP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
A storage administrator is configuring inter-VSAN routing on a fabric that contains duplicate domain IDs. Which feature must be configured to ensure continued operation?

A. auto topology
B. transit VSANs
C. IVR NAT
D. virtual domains

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which EtherType is used by the FCoE Initialization Protocol?

A. 0×8913
B. 0×8914
C. 0×xfc0e D. 0×8906

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
What is the function of the 0xFFFFFC address in a Fibre Channel fabric?

A. management server
B. fabric controller
C. name server
D. time server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change improves the ability of the link to recover from frame loss?

A. Increase the reset timeout.
B. Enable selective acknowledgment.
C. Increase the send buffer size to 15000 KB.
D. Disable PMTU discovery.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
An engineer is configuring a SAN environment and attempts to activate a zoneset, but a lock is held by another user. Which argument does the engineer use to clear the lock from the zoning database configuration?

A. commit
B. abort
C. clear
D. force

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A storage network engineer must install and configure a new MDS switch in a data center network. Which two statements about available choices during the MDS switch initial setup are correct? (Choose two.)

A. The engineer can choose what will be the administrator account.
B. The secure password standard is required.
C. The engineer can configure the default zone policy.
D. The engineer can configure the default switch port trunk mode.
E. The engineer does not have the choice to enable or disable full zoneset distribution.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
A storage administrator is enabling DH-CHAP for the first time on a Fibre Channel fabric. Which condition must the administrator consider while configuring this feature?

A. NTP must be configured on all devices or the configuration fails.
B. The MD5 hash must be used if TACACS+ or RADIUS authentication for FCSP is enabled.
C. All switches on the fabric must be configured for the same password.
D. Enabling DH-CHAP protocol feature is unsupported on FCIP interfaces.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring Inter-VSAN routing for two Cisco MDS switches. The FSPF cost between the switches is 500, and the Cisco MDS core virtualizes an IVR NAT domain as shown. Which statement about the topology is correct?

A. The MDS-Core simulates an IVR NAT, and the FSPF cost is 500.
B. The MDS-Core simulates an IVR NAT, and increases the cost to 501.
C. The MDS-Core simulates an IVR NAT, and decreases the cost to 400.
D. The MDS-Core simulates an IVR NAT, and increases the cost to 600.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which action must be performed to deactivate a VSAN without losing its configuration?

A. Isolate it.
B. Delete it.
C. Rename it.
D. Suspend it.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of merging the fabric?

A. The merged fabric IVR VSAN topology is set to activate.
B. The merged fabric has NAT enabled.
C. The merge is invalid.
D. The merged fabric contains only service group Group1.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the configuration?

A. No-drop CoS values are advertised by the DCBX.
B. LFC is prioritized over PFC on Ethernet 1/10.
C. PFC operates on Ethernet 1/10 regardless of the capability of the peer.
D. PFC fails to operate properly unless LFC is disabled on Ethernet 1/10.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which configuration is needed to enable manual ESP mode for Fibre Channel TrustSec on Cisco MDS switches?

A. MDS(config)# interface fc 1/1 MDS(config-if)# fcsp esp manual
B. MDS(config)# fcsp esp manual
C. MDS(config)# interface fc 1/1 MDS(config-if)# fcsp mode gcm MDS(config-if-fcsp)# fcsp esp manual
D. MDS(config)# interface fc 1/1 MDS(config-if)# fcsp esp manual MDS(config-if-fcsp)# mode gcm

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A storage network engineer is implementing SAN telemetry for a SAN infrastructure using Cisco DCNM for SAN. Which command is used to check the session status for telemetry operation?

A. show telemetry pipeline stats
B. show telemetry transport
C. show telemetry control stats
D. show analytics system-load

Correct Answer: B

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