2021/February Latest Braindump2go 350-401 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new 350-401 Real Exam Questions!
Refer to the exhibit. What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?
A. STP BPDU guard is enabled
B. A description “RSPAN” is added
C. They are placed into an inactive state
D. They cannot provide PoE
What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?
A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM
B. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match
C. Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.
D. TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables
Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two )
A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center
B. Already connected users are unaffected, bu new users cannot connect
C. User connectivity is unaffected.
D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.
E. Users lose connectivity
A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:
– FHRP redundancy
– multivendor router environment
– IPv4 and IPv6 hosts
Which protocol does the design include?
B. VRRP version 2
C. VRRP version 3
D. HSRP version 2
Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt?
What is a characteristic of MACsec?
A. 802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services
B. 802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful 802 1X session
C. 802.1AE is bult between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode)
D. 802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol
Which two components are supported by LISP? (choose two )
A. proxy ETR
B. egress tunnel router
C. route reflector
D. HMAC algorithm
What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?
A. only required at the network perimeter
B. required in each layer of the network
C. filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only
D. provides intrusion prevention
After a redundant route processor failure occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables?
D. RP failover
Refer to the exhibit. What does the output confirm about the switch’s spanning tree configuration?
A. The spanning-tree mode stp ieee command was entered on this switch
B. The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST.
C. The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST+.
D. The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is IEEE
Which two southbound interfaces originate from Cisco DMA Center and terminate at fabric underlay switches? (Choose two)
A. ICMP: Discovery
B. UDP 67: DHCP
C. TCP 23: Telnet
D. UDP 6007: NetFlow
E. UDP 162: SNMP
What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?
A. Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another
B. Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor
C. Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed
D. Para-virtualization lacks support for containers
Which measure is used by an NTP server to indicate its closeness to the authoritative time source?
A. time zone
B. hop count
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and commun cate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireles endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?
A. DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switc operates in PVST+
B. Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode
C. Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network
D. Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.
Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?
How does EIGRP differ from OSPF?
A. EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF
B. EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors
C. EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.
D. EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF
Which level message does the WLC send to the syslog server?
A. syslog level errors and less severity messages
B. syslog level errors messages
C. all syslog levels messages
D. syslog level errors and greater severity messages
A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a large commercial airport Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes Which two actions fix this issue? (Ch os two)
A. Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list
B. Restore the OCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference
C. Disable DFS channels to prevent interference writ) Doppler radar
D. Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference
E. Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the LISP components on the left to the correct description on the right
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the virtual component from the left onto their descriptions on the right.
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